Hi, I am confused, In Matthew 28:1 It has "in the evening of the SABBATH, as it was twilight (on) the first of the week..."

My confusion is; As the Jewish Sabbath runs from evening to evening. (Twilight to twilight; Sun going down, to Sun going down).
The grammar appears to be in question in this verse compared to other Gospels verses? Surely the time interval mentioned here has to fix the time around late in the "day" of the SABBATH, as the sun was going "down"... To me, it's twilight around 6 PM?

My question is; In the translated Aramaic from the Interlinear, what does "evening of the SABBATH" mean? In the context of this verse. Is it an Idiom? Source of western confusion?

Have a missed something? Please enlighten me

Thanks, David 

Music files on this site are in an old Real Player format. You can't play them on phones, etc.

Here are converted files converted to .mp3, which play in any browser this days:

https://aramlang.github.io/peshitta/music/

I have fully restored http://www.assyrianlanguage.com/ from archive.com. That combined with an older/simpler version of that Grammar I have around, allowed me to restore sound to all pages except for a very few "newer" ones,  which were not found in the older version Grammar.

It's a pity for such an amazing site to not be easily available. Does anybody know how to reach out to Alan Aldawood to ask for permission to publish the restored site somewhere? If so feel free to private message me, or reply here if no sensitive data is involved.

It has all the copyright notices intact. Sound support is improved by playing sound inline, not by downloading the audio file. You just click the word/sentence and it is automatically spoken.

Copyright allows one to restore a personal copy for private use, but not to re-publish the site for everybody. Would be nice to be able to make it public, if permission granted.
Maybe the old domain name could also be resurrected.

Right now if you follow Tools->Grammar link you get nothing. That site is no longer up. 
The site was amazing, with pronunciation and real life practical examples.
It turns out site is still found in the archive.org. Here is the last live snapshot of the site:

https://web.archive.org/web/200708080842...guage.com/

While searching for something on peshitta.org, I got search results that look like this: http://www.peshitta.org/forums/forumid6/32.html [/url][url=http://www.peshitta.org/forums/forumid6/32.html]
It turns out that's an old forum before 2003. There is a lot of great information in there!
Looks like you can cycle through the pages starting from 1.html to 2152.html.

Attached there is also an html file which could be run in a browser on a local computer making cycling through pages a bit easier. If I see any interest in this subject, we could post this file somewhere on the web instead.

Attached Files

  archive.html (Size: 1.91 KB / Downloads: 2)

Hey everyone (i.e. those who still stumble upon or occasionally check this forum),

So little is touched on in regards to the Old Testament of the Peshitta. Rabbi Qasha Ephraim Alkhas of the Diocese of California (Assyrian Church of the East of course) is starting a series of blogs giving additional information. Below is the first part,

http://eastmeetseastblog.blogspot.com/20...ts+East%29

Enjoy!

Hi All!

Does anybody have an idea how the variant in Greek got to 'let him be noted/marked' σημειοῦσθε
while the aramaic is from the root, separate (the same from which pharisee comes), 'netpresh'





Thanks!

There is hardly any activity on this forum. Was this only a trend and now things have changed?

Has Paul moved onto other pursuits?

1. The Forum is back up!  Hooray!
I don't know if anyone else couldn't get back onto the Forum.  I even E-Mailed MyBB.
So nice to see the Forum again.

2. On to Bidness:

I don't think I  Posted on this here but I had reason to re-visit this recently and it might be worth bouncing it off of those more knowledgeable than yours truly:

John 18: 19 - 23 (RSV):

[19] The high priest then questioned Jesus about his disciples and his teaching.
[20] Jesus answered him, "I have spoken openly to the world; I have always taught in synagogues and in the temple, where all Jews come together; I have said nothing secretly.
[21] Why do you ask me? Ask those who have heard me, what I said to them; they know what I said."
[22] When he had said this, one of the officers standing by struck Jesus with his hand, saying, "Is that how you answer the high priest?"
[23] Jesus answered him, "If I have spoken wrongly, bear witness to the wrong; but if I have spoken rightly, why do you strike me?"

This Passage reads a little awkward and a little strange to me and I wonder if it reads that way to others.
Some time ago, I began looking at variations on this to see if the awkwardness could be moderated.

A. Verse 19 appears to be a Summary of sorts.  Of course, it could be expanded - "What about this particular Teaching of yours...?" and so on.  The verse is short.  If the verse had been expanded, verse 20 would be fine.

B. Verse 20 reads as an answer to the question, if only it occurred in a better position.

Let's swap verses:

[19] The high priest then questioned Jesus about his disciples and his teaching. 
[21] "Why do you ask me? Ask those who have heard me, what I said to them; they know what I said."

[22] When he had said this, one of the officers standing by struck Jesus with his hand, saying, "Is that how you answer the high priest?" 

This reads a little better if a little more volatile.  The answer in verse 21 is more edgy and the response of the "Officer" becomes more in line with someone who would defend the High Priest against someone who may be perceived as being "Seditious".

C. This leaves 2 verses that begin with "Jesus answered..."  In fact, it reads very "smooth" if the 2 verses are combined.

[23] Jesus answered him, "If I have spoken wrongly, bear witness to the wrong; but if I have spoken rightly, why do you strike me?" 
[Add Verse 20 here:] "I have spoken openly to the world; I have always taught in synagogues and in the temple, where all Jews come together; I have said nothing secretly.

Does the Passage read "Smoother" now?:

[19] The high priest then questioned Jesus about his disciples and his teaching. 
[21] "Why do you ask me? Ask those who have heard me, what I said to them; they know what I said."
[22] When he had said this, one of the officers standing by struck Jesus with his hand, saying, "Is that how you answer the high priest?"
[23] Jesus answered him, "If I have spoken wrongly, bear witness to the wrong; but if I have spoken rightly, why do you strike me?  
[20] I have spoken openly to the world; I have always taught in synagogues and in the temple, where all Jews come together; I have said nothing secretly."

This aligns quite nicely.  Jesus answers the "Officer" who interrupted Jesus and then finishes his answer to the High Priest.
***
There is even a reason for possibly rearranging this Passage: *IF* it were to be read in this manner, then Jesus has taught openly and the Jews understood his Meaning.  However, "I have said nothing secretly" contradicts the Synoptics as to the Hiding of Jesus' Teaching, "...lest they understand".

*IF* this rearranging had been done, it would have been done VERY early, before it was translated to...ummm...other languages.  I may yet edit this to include PY's Translation - it goes to Intentionality again, of John over and against Mark.

Does this make sense to anyone?
Is there any evidence that something like this was attempted here?

Thanx, ALL!!!

CW

Hi everyone,

I have been pondering this for a while. Why would Jesus and the Apostles mainly quote from the Greek Septuagint rather than from the Hebrew family of Old Testament scriptures. The MT Hebrew or Aramaic? Tanakh? 

For example in Luke 4:18 from the Interlinear NT it says;

"The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, and because of this he has anointed me to declare hope to the poor and he has sent me to heal the broken hearted and to preach to the captives release and to the blind sight and to free those (who are) oppressed with forgiveness and to preach the year acceptable of the LORD"...


The quote was from Isaiah 61:1-2 and when we compare this to  the LXX with the MT- Hebrew scriptures we get as follows;

Quote:LXX (Lancelot C. L. Brenton English translation of the LXX):

"The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he has anointed me; he has sent me to preach glad tidings to the poor, to heal the broken in heart, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and recovery of sight to the blind; to declare the acceptable year of the Lord"

Quote:The KJV uses the MT family of old testament text: Luke 4:18 reads;

"The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD"

The quote from Luke 4:18 agrees more with the LXX than the Hebrew-MT text.  The clause, "recovering of sight to the blind" in Luke 4:18 matches the clause, "recovery of sight to the blind" in Isaiah 61:1 of the LXX.  And the Aramaic Interlinear NT of "to the blind sight".

The scripture "scroll" containing the text above was handed to Jesus. A venerated scroll that was
held in the Capernaum synagogue, represented the Tanakh of the day? It appears that the scripture was referenced more to the LXX rather than the MT Hebrew family of scriptures? The MT- Hebrew text does not explicitly mention the "blind" at all.