Is the Greek New Testament willfully corrupted

[distazo]

What do you think about the problem in Mark 2:26? If the Greek is a corruption of the Aramaic, why did the Peshitta have the same error as the Greek?

So if the Aramaic was the original, why did the Peshitta had this terrible mistake too? Do someone had an explanation to this?

The Peshitta is a (small) corruption of the Original Aramaic (this might offend some here, but I am a proponent of the fact that the Peshitta is very clean), and the Greek is a corruption of the Original Aramaic.
like in evolution it is called 'common ancestor'. So, if some Aramaic misreading ocurred, it could happen into the (a)Syrian reading as well. Big chance it happens like that. (like for instance 'justfied by children or deeds?)

But as the Jeremy explained, not every contradiction is really a contradiction.