07-11-2013, 12:09 AM
What do you think about the problem in Mark 2:26? If the Greek is a corruption of the Aramaic, why did the Peshitta have the same error as the Greek?
"how he went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and ate the showbread, which is not lawful to eat except for the priests, and also gave some to those who were with him?? Matthew 2:26 NKJV
The Peshitta have the same mistake. Abiathar was not the high priest, it was Ahimelech. The passage is in 1 Sam 21.1-7 confirm this mistake:
So David said to Ahimelech the priest, ?The king has ordered me on some business, and said to me, ?Do not let anyone know anything about the business on which I send you, or what I have commanded you.? And I have directed my young men to such and such a place. 3 Now therefore, what have you on hand? Give me five loaves of bread in my hand, or whatever can be found.? 1 Samuel 21:2-3
So if the Aramaic was the original, why did the Peshitta had this terrible mistake too? Do someone had an explanation to this?
"how he went into the house of God in the days of Abiathar the high priest, and ate the showbread, which is not lawful to eat except for the priests, and also gave some to those who were with him?? Matthew 2:26 NKJV
The Peshitta have the same mistake. Abiathar was not the high priest, it was Ahimelech. The passage is in 1 Sam 21.1-7 confirm this mistake:
So David said to Ahimelech the priest, ?The king has ordered me on some business, and said to me, ?Do not let anyone know anything about the business on which I send you, or what I have commanded you.? And I have directed my young men to such and such a place. 3 Now therefore, what have you on hand? Give me five loaves of bread in my hand, or whatever can be found.? 1 Samuel 21:2-3
So if the Aramaic was the original, why did the Peshitta had this terrible mistake too? Do someone had an explanation to this?