11-30-2011, 05:35 AM
Paul Younan Wrote:Hi Bartek,
What if they all were, prior to that, called "Meshikhaye" ... and this passage is just telling us that the by then common "Christaye" was first used at Antioch ?
In other words, when an author is saying something's name changed at this location and at this time, it makes sense that *prior* to that, that wasn't the case. Makes sense?
+Shamasha
Shlama akhi,
these were my thoughts, as well. especially knowing the cross-roads nature of Antioch and the bilingual prevalence there of Aramaic and Greek, it would only be logical to comment on the "rise" of this term in such a city. obviously it would have been no big deal for them to have been called a Semitic term of description if they arose initially in a culture immersed in a Semitic language -- why even comment on that, right? it would only stand out worthy of noting if something *changed* enough linguistically. a blossoming community of belief intermixed with a heavy dose of "Gentiles" would be the perfect recipe for an alternate title in another language.
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy