01-16-2008, 09:19 PM
Anything is possible, but that hardly explains why the West had so much trouble with these books. Revelation was resisted in the west for a long time, it was the last one accepted "universally" by the west. Not until the 8th century or so was it "cleared" by everyone. The other 4 had a hard time being accepted, too.
Why did the Synod of Laodicea (~363 CE) exclude Revelation? Laodicea was hardly CoE, right?
No mention of Revelation. Nada.
And wasn't Laodicea one of the "Seven Churches" addressed in Revelation?
Why did the Synod of Laodicea (~363 CE) exclude Revelation? Laodicea was hardly CoE, right?
Quote:Canon 59. Let no private psalms nor any uncanonical books be read in the church, but only the canonical ones of the New and Old Testament.
Canon 60. [After listing the books of the Old Testament] And these are the books of the New Testament: four Gospels, according to Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John; the Acts of the Apostles, seven Catholic epistles, namely, one of James, two of Peter, three of John, one of Jude, fourteen epistles of Paul, one to the Romans, two to the Corinthians, one to the Galatians, one to the Ephesians, one to the Philippians, one to the Colossians, two to the Thessalonians, one to the Hebrews, two to Timothy, one to Titus, and one to Philemon.
No mention of Revelation. Nada.
And wasn't Laodicea one of the "Seven Churches" addressed in Revelation?