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How does Zorba proof Greek primacy?
#2
I found this:

>>The Gospel of Luke and the Acts of the Apostles, according to Tradition, were written by a Greek physician named Luke who had been converted by Paul, to the Greek playwrite Theophilus (see Acts 1:1, the book of the Acts being a continuation of the Lukian Gospel). Why would a Greek write to another Greek in Aramaic? Especially considering that fact that Aramaic was only a vernacular, and not a formal language. It is probable that Christ and the Apostles spoke Aramaic as their first language, but such was not studied by the Greeks, to whom the majority of the New Testament is addressed.
>>

Wasn't Luke Assyrian??? Weren't the earliest Christians in Greece, Judeans and other Semites?
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Messages In This Thread
How does Zorba proof Greek primacy? - by drmlanc - 09-22-2003, 12:47 PM
. - by drmlanc - 09-22-2003, 10:34 PM
. - by drmlanc - 09-22-2003, 10:39 PM
[No subject] - by Dave - 09-23-2003, 12:27 AM
. - by drmlanc - 09-23-2003, 01:15 AM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 09-23-2003, 01:37 AM
. - by drmlanc - 09-23-2003, 01:42 AM
Re: . - by Paul Younan - 09-23-2003, 02:05 AM
[No subject] - by Dave - 09-23-2003, 04:38 AM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 09-23-2003, 01:10 PM
[No subject] - by The Thadman - 09-24-2003, 04:44 AM

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