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How does Zorba proof Greek primacy?

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How does Zorba proof Greek primacy?
drmlanc
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#1
09-22-2003, 12:47 PM
Do Zorbans actually make a case for Greek primacy, or is it just assumed? Taken for granted?

Do they actually have ways of 'proving' that the NT was written in Greek. Besides of course, just saying "there is heaps of manuscript evidence"... There are heaps of English versions too, the NT must have been written in English... <!-- sConfusedtupid: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/withstupid.gif" alt="Confusedtupid:" title="Stupid" /><!-- sConfusedtupid: -->
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Messages In This Thread
How does Zorba proof Greek primacy? - by drmlanc - 09-22-2003, 12:47 PM
. - by drmlanc - 09-22-2003, 10:34 PM
. - by drmlanc - 09-22-2003, 10:39 PM
[No subject] - by Dave - 09-23-2003, 12:27 AM
. - by drmlanc - 09-23-2003, 01:15 AM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 09-23-2003, 01:37 AM
. - by drmlanc - 09-23-2003, 01:42 AM
Re: . - by Paul Younan - 09-23-2003, 02:05 AM
[No subject] - by Dave - 09-23-2003, 04:38 AM
[No subject] - by Paul Younan - 09-23-2003, 01:10 PM
[No subject] - by The Thadman - 09-24-2003, 04:44 AM

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