Some questions

[gbausc]

Hi Chuck,


You have reinforced my statement by not quoting one Greek manuscript or ancient version with the reading: "the church of the Messiah, which he purchased with his blood." for Acts 20:28.
Why in the world would you be quoting Andrew Roth, Etheridge or Lamsa to prove your case?

I am not denying the fact that the Messiah died or shed his blood; I am simply stating a fact about the reading of Acts 20:28. Why is there not one Greek manuscript (including P46-3rd century) with the Eastern Peshitta reading, if that reading is the original from which all Greek manuscripts of Acts are translated? Why does no ancient version of the New Testament-(Latin,Itala,Coptic,Slavonic,Georgian,Armenian,Gothic, Bohairic, Sahidic,Arabic,or Ethiopic) have the Eastern Peshitta reading?
And why do most Peshitta mss. contain the reading,"the church of God, which he purchased with his blood", with which most Greek mss. agree, including B & Aleph (4th century)? Did the Peshitta scribes get it from the Greek? Highly unlikely, but if they did,then, where did the Greek mss. get the "God" reading?

Blessings,

Dave