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Yukhanan 12:41
#3
October 3, 2003

My Greek primacist friend says that the peshitta use of [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]dk[/font] in John 14:21 is because it was translated from one of the Greek New Testament manuscripts. What other Aramaic word could they have used? He says that the various versions in the Greek manuscripts were caused by confusion of similar Greek words, not by mistranslation of [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]dk[/font].

Otto
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Messages In This Thread
Yukhanan 12:41 - by Paul Younan - 09-17-2003, 08:41 PM
. - by drmlanc - 09-20-2003, 03:21 AM
John 14:21 - by ograabe - 10-05-2003, 09:56 PM
. - by drmlanc - 10-05-2003, 11:47 PM

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