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+--- Forum: Polysemy - Split Words (http://peshitta.org/for/forumdisplay.php?fid=11)
+--- Thread: Yukhanan 12:41 (/showthread.php?tid=372)
Yukhanan 12:41 - Paul Younan - 09-17-2003
Shlama Akhay,
Another "problem" word in Aramaic which has many meanings is the word [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]dk [/font](please see Lexicon, word# 9808.)
This word can mean "When, After, While, Where, Since, etc."
If the various Greek manuscripts of Yukhanan's Gospel were translation from the Aramaic version of Yukhanan, we would expect that they would vary in their exact translation of this word, and in fact they do.
The following Greek manuscripts translate it "Because": p66 p75 S A B L X Theta Psi f1 33
The following translate it "When": D, K, Delta, Pi, f13, 565, 700, 892, 1241
And the following manuscript translates it "Since": W
How could Yukhanan have written this in Greek? Doesn't the mere fact that these variances exist mean that the Greek manuscripts are only translations?
. - drmlanc - 09-20-2003
Frm BSWA2 part 1
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Let???s start the new article off with a bang ??? with another ???triple split word???!
The NIV says: ???Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus' glory and spoke about him.???
The KJV says: ???These things said Esaias, when he saw his glory, and spake of him.???
Versions that say because or a variation thereof: AMP, ASV, BBE, CEV, DARBY, ESV, GodsWord, Holman, NASB, NIV, NIV-UK, NLT, Rotherham, RSV, TEV, Weymouth.
Versions that say when or a variation thereof: ALT, Douay-Rheims, Geneva, ISV, KJ21, LITV, MKJV, KJV, NKJV, WE, Webster, Wycliffe, YLT.
Versions that say since or a variation thereof: None that I am aware of. Only one of the major Greek manuscripts seems to have this reading, so it is not a surprise to find that it is not represented among the English versions.
John 14:21 - ograabe - 10-05-2003
October 3, 2003
My Greek primacist friend says that the peshitta use of [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]dk[/font] in John 14:21 is because it was translated from one of the Greek New Testament manuscripts. What other Aramaic word could they have used? He says that the various versions in the Greek manuscripts were caused by confusion of similar Greek words, not by mistranslation of [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]dk[/font].
Otto
. - drmlanc - 10-05-2003
""He says that the various versions in the Greek manuscripts were caused by confusion of similar Greek words, not by mistranslation of dk.
""
Nice theory, but there are split word examples where teh Greek variants are different in meaning, sound and spelling, but have an Aramaic root <!-- s
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