Questions re peshitta primacy

[judge]

Hi all,
I have been discussing peshitta primacy in another place and have come up against the following obejections.

In Mk 15:16, we are told that "the soldiers led him [Jesus] into the courtyard of the palace," and then the text explains for his Roman audience, "that is, the praetorium." That explanation has been translated into the Peshitta.

In Mk 15:42, we are told "that it was the day of preparation," a common idea for anyone with knowledge of Judaism, and then the text explains for his Roman audience, "that is, the day before the sabbath."

In Jn 20:24 we are told of Thomas, a person who the text explains as "called the twin", this explanation is also found hilariously in Aramaic, for the name Thomas means "twin" and we have t)wm) called t)m) (note the extra vowel in the name, ie the first one, to assure correct pronunciation), so we have "the twin called the twin" in Aramaic.

In Jn 20:16 we are told that "Mary said [to Jesus] in Hebrew, Rabbouni," and then the text explains for his non-Semitic audience, "which is to say, teacher," and this is also as it is found in the Peshitta. The readers of the Peshitta apparently wouldn't understand the Aramaic rabuni or as the Peshitta writes it, rabuli.

Look at the material that is only found in Luke, ie not shared with other gospels, and you find that the word, which is spr' in Aramaic, is nomikoi in Greek. In the shared material in Luke, the synoptic material, you find grammateis where you find spr' in Aramaic. Now note the non-randomness of the distribution in Greek. Why is nomikoi found in the purely Lucan material if the text was not redacted first in Greek then translated into Aramaic where the distinction between nomikoi and grammateis was lost?

Any thoughts?