How does Zorba proof Greek primacy?

[Paul Younan]

Really, I think Akhan Dave hits upon a very good point here.

The Greek was the "first on the scene", as far as European Christianity was concerned. Therefore since your immediate heritage derives from European Christianity, then this is why the theory of Greek primacy is so strong here in the West.

Dave and Chris - there are no significant theological differences between what the Aramaic says and what the Greek says. But really examining the evidence should convince any reasonable person that the "scholarly consensus" here in the West is faulty with regard to the Greek primacy of the NT.

Dave is right in saying that the message is the most important part. I don't pretend to tell anyone that the message is superior in the Aramaic - only that it more strongly reinforces what we already know and the faith that has already been handed down to us.

But I think, again, an examination of the evidence will convince any reasonable person that the Aramaic was the source for the Greek.

Message very important - yes, indeed. But there are thousands of websites dedicated to that important message - ours is one of a handful dedicated to this topic. So that's why, Dave, we seem to sometimes put so much emphasis on the linguistics and primacy here.