06-22-2012, 06:53 PM
I think that, and this may sound odd, the presence of a Greek loan word in the Aramaic scriptures actually supports Aramaic primacy.
I've always said that if the Peshitta was 100% pure Aramaic, it could not be the product of the milieu of 1st-century Palestine. It would most certainly have been a translation.
I've always said that if the Peshitta was 100% pure Aramaic, it could not be the product of the milieu of 1st-century Palestine. It would most certainly have been a translation.