Peshitta Forum

Full Version: Matth. 19:28
You're currently viewing a stripped down version of our content. View the full version with proper formatting.
In Peshitta
Matth. 19:28 "...when the Son of man shall sit upon the throne of his glory, you also shall sit upon twelve seats...".
In Greek text it says 'throne' in both cases.
Aramaic 'tronos' means throne and 'kurs'ya'' means both throne and seat.

If the Greek original would be 'throne' in both cases, the Aramaic translator would translate
it either 'throne' or 'seat' since Zorba has one word for both cases.
Now it looks like Zorba translated it into one word.
IPOstapyuk Wrote:In Peshitta
Matth. 19:28 "...when the Son of man shall sit upon the throne of his glory, you also shall sit upon twelve seats...".
In Greek text it says 'throne' in both cases.
Aramaic 'tronos' means throne and 'kurs'ya'' means both throne and seat.

If the Greek original would be 'throne' in both cases, the Aramaic translator would translate
it either 'throne' or 'seat' since Zorba has one word for both cases.
Now it looks like Zorba translated it into one word.

Shlama Akhi Ivan:
The word "tronos" is of Greek origin and it is borrowed in Matthew 19:28. Perhaps this knowledge will help you. I was a little surprised myself to find "tronos" in the Khabouris Codex. It only appears in the Peshitta in Matthew 19:28 and Matthew 25:31.
Shlama,
Stephen
Matt 23:22 has "k'uwrsyeh"=throne, rather than the Greek word that shows up in Matt 19:28 & 25:31

"And whosoever sweareth by heaven, sweareth by the throne of Alaha, and by Him who sitteth thereon."

I guess my question would be...if Matthew wrote in Aramaic, and the Peshitta text is from that source and not a Greek source, why does it have the Greek word for "throne" in two places, then the Aramaic word for "throne" in two places? Would Matthew have done this? And if so, what would be a reason?

Shlama,
Chuck
Hi Chuck.

In Aramaic kurseya literally means chair. As in generic chair. Tronos is a greek loan word in Aramaic for throne.
:

Is there no Aramaic word for Throne then? Must a Greek word be borrowed for a lack of it in Aramaic?
Thirdwoe Wrote::

Is there no Aramaic word for Throne then? Must a Greek word be borrowed for a lack of it in Aramaic?

Hi Akh,

Kursya does mean throne as well, if used in context. But it is more general and can mean a simple chair, which in fact we call the dinner table chairs, or the chairs at work - Kursya. It can be inferred to mean throne when speaking of royalty.

The term Tronos was borrowed, I'm sure, to convey a bit more specificity. It came through during the era of Alexander and the later Seleucids of Mesopotamia and the levant.
I think this is very significant.

Because, if you look at all the places in the NT where it speaks of the "Throne" of God, in Matthew and the other NT books, even Revelation, which is believed to come from a Greek source, the word is Kursya or a variation of it, not Tronos as the Greek versions have.

It seems to me, that Matthew actually used the word "Tronos" in these two places for some reason, rather than "Kursya", as he does in the other places in his Gospel, and Peshitta being a copy of the Aramaic Gospel of Matthew and not a translation of it, does not translate the word "Tronos" to "Kursya".

IF Peshitta were a translation of a Greek form of the Gospel of Matthew, then these two places with "Tronos", would have been translated as "Kursya", as is seen, for instance in Revelation 4:4.

Shlama,
Chuck
I think that, and this may sound odd, the presence of a Greek loan word in the Aramaic scriptures actually supports Aramaic primacy.

I've always said that if the Peshitta was 100% pure Aramaic, it could not be the product of the milieu of 1st-century Palestine. It would most certainly have been a translation.