Some questions

[gbausc]

Shlama Akhi Chuck,

I will gladly continue the textual discussion. I did not want this to be a doctrinal debate, so I will continue on the discussion of Acts 20:28.

My last question to you on this matter remains unanswered:

Why is there not one Greek manuscript (including P46-3rd century) with the Eastern Peshitta reading, if that reading is the original from which all Greek manuscripts of Acts are translated? Why does no ancient version of the New Testament-(Latin,Itala,Coptic,Slavonic,Georgian,Armenian,Gothic, Bohairic, Sahidic,Arabic,or Ethiopic) have the Eastern Peshitta reading?

And

?where did the Greek mss. get the "God" reading?

You accept that the Greek NT is a first century translation of the Peshitta, do you not? Why do almost all Greek mss. read, "church of God" or "Lord God", or "Lord and God", if the first century Peshitta manuscript from which they originated had" edta d'Meshikha" -"church of The Messiah"?

You may interpret either reading as you wish, and you have already admitted that either reading is orthodox, in your view. I do not think an astute Assyrian Christian would agree with you in this matter, and yet you are vehement that the Eastern reading is correct here, and also wherever the Western disagrees, no matter how large the majority of Peshitta mss. that read differently; am I getting that right about your position?

"Church of the Lord" is beside the point, though that reading agrees more with the majority Greek reading-"of the Lord God" or "of the Lord and God" than with "of The Christ". "Of The Christ" (tou Christou) is the reading we would expect in the Greek, if the original Peshitta reading was "Meshikha", yet not one known Greek ms. has it. Practically every Greek ms. has "God" in the reading; most have also "Kuriou"- "Lord" connected with "Theou" (God).

These are not insignificant facts.

Blessings,

Dave