12-29-2008, 02:08 PM
Shlama distazo,
The Alef-Tav you are referring to is, in Biblical Hebrew, actually an object marker. When the direct object of a verb is a definite noun (i.e. has the definite article) or is a proper noun, it is usually preceded by the object marker -?????? ('eth-).
Aramaic makes use of a similar object marker, but instead of Alaf-Tav it is Yodh-Tav, -???? (yath-). The particle -?? (l-) can also take on the role to identify a direct object that is definite. Which one is preferably used seems to depend on the dialect.
In order to relate to some of my recent studies; the Aramaic found in transcriptions from Palmyra and Petra (Nabatean) makes use of -???? while for example inscriptions from Hatra (same period, middle Aramaic) does not use -????. On the flip side the Targums (Onkelos & Jonathan) makes heavy use of -????.
However, as far as I know, Syriac does not use the -???? marker. But never the less the opening verse in Peshitta OT (Gen 1:1) does contain Yod-Heh, but my guess is that it is there in order to read closer to the opening verse of the Hebrew text, as the remianing text after Gen 1:1, at a quick glance, goes over to exclusivly use -?? when a marker is used at all.
Lars
The Alef-Tav you are referring to is, in Biblical Hebrew, actually an object marker. When the direct object of a verb is a definite noun (i.e. has the definite article) or is a proper noun, it is usually preceded by the object marker -?????? ('eth-).
Aramaic makes use of a similar object marker, but instead of Alaf-Tav it is Yodh-Tav, -???? (yath-). The particle -?? (l-) can also take on the role to identify a direct object that is definite. Which one is preferably used seems to depend on the dialect.
In order to relate to some of my recent studies; the Aramaic found in transcriptions from Palmyra and Petra (Nabatean) makes use of -???? while for example inscriptions from Hatra (same period, middle Aramaic) does not use -????. On the flip side the Targums (Onkelos & Jonathan) makes heavy use of -????.
However, as far as I know, Syriac does not use the -???? marker. But never the less the opening verse in Peshitta OT (Gen 1:1) does contain Yod-Heh, but my guess is that it is there in order to read closer to the opening verse of the Hebrew text, as the remianing text after Gen 1:1, at a quick glance, goes over to exclusivly use -?? when a marker is used at all.
Lars