Basic questions about Peshitta primacy

[John Stephens]

Having reached the book of Acts in my study of the Peshitta, I found another point of confusion with regard to the Aramaic. Your guidance to this point has been very helpful to me.

[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0y=srkw0[/font]: "Eucharist"

I'm not sure what to make of this. "Eucharistos" in Greek means "grateful, thankful," and there doesn't seem to be a compelling reason for Aramaic speakers to borrow this word to describe what became a defining act in Christian worship, which the Church of the East still calls Qurbana.

Eucharistos seems like it would be a technical term that would emerge in a Greek-speaking community to describe the Qurbana, and a term that would be meaningful only to a Greek-speaking audience.

Luqa also uses the name Petros to describe Keepa sometimes (I understand that both mean "Rock." How could he get away with this in an Aramaic-speaking community? I expect that words associated with war and trade would creep into the language, but here it seems as though Luqa's vocabulary in Greek is stronger than his Aramaic.

My other question pertains to the verses which contain linguistic explanations, such as Acts 1:19. If the tongue of Urishlim was Peshitta Aramaic, why is there any need for interpretation? There are many examples of this in the Peshitta.

I hope you will forgive my ignorance in this; I have been steeped in the tradition of Western primacy, and I want to get a grip on this.

Thanks again for your help!