07-23-2011, 09:23 AM
Paul Younan Wrote:The Texas RAT Wrote:Why do you say it is in "Mattai 20:28"?
Shlama Texas Rat,
Because it's in the "Old Syriac" and "Codex Bezae" versions of Matthew 20:28, hence the "spurios" comment =) It's a good thing you didn't find it in any other of the manuscripts you checked...not supposed to be there.
+Shamasha
I thought that the Byzantine text was the same as Bezae, is why I tried to hunt it down in the Greek Byzantine and also any English translation that used it. Guest not?
Anyway thanks for taking the time to answer my question. And thanks for this forum where you and others can share their knowledge and expertise.