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About the Greek primacy showed by the Peshitta
#1
Shlama,
First of all, Paul Younan, is it possible to make a contact with You by email??? Thank You.
When I was reading the Peshitta in Aramaic with estrangelo script I found that the beginning of the Gospel of Mark the Peshitta uses the Greek word "euangelion " which means good news in Greek. I believe if Jesus was using the Aramaic language he had Semitic definition of this word but if the Peshitta did not use it, it means that the original of the Gospel of Mark was in Greek.
Next, the Peshitta Epistle of Peter starts with Greek word Petros (so the autor calls himself). Petros means "rock" in Greek. It tells that the author carried the Greek version of his name because dealed with Greek speaking people and probably writes in Greek.
I do not try to attack the Aramaic primacy, I want to look at the truth without presumptions.
The answer from Paul Younan is very expected.
Thank You.
Ivan.
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#2
Shlama Akhi Ivan!

Questioning is good. The Aramaic of Mark starts off with the Greek loan-word "Ewangelion", so therefore we might speculate that the Aramaic version might have been translated from the Greek. Otherwise, why would a Greek loan-word be in there?

Let me ask you a question: Using the same logic as above, does the presence of the Aramaic loan-word "Shakira" ("strong drink") in the Greek manuscripts of Luke 1:15 necessarily mean that the Greek versions of Luke were translated from the Aramaic?

How about applying the same logic above to these verses:

  1. "Shabbatha" (Aramaic for "Sabbath") in Greek Matthew 2:11?
  2. "Mamona" (Aramaic for "money") in Greek Luke 16:9?
  3. "Wai!" (Aramaic for "woe!") in Greek Matthew 23:13?
  4. "Rabbi" (Aramaic for "teacher") in Greek Matthew 23:7,8?
  5. "Qorban" (Aramaic for "offering") in Greek Mark 7:11?
  6. "Satana" (Aramaic for "Satan") in Greek Luke 10:18?
  7. "Cammuna (Aramaic for "Cummin") in Greek Matt 23:23?
  8. "Raqa" (Aramaic for "Spit") in Greek Matthew 5:22?
  9. "Korin" (Aramaic for "Dry Measure") in Greek Luke 16:7?
  10. "Boanerges" (Aramaic for "Sons of Thunder") in Greek Mark 3:17?
  11. "Zezne" (Aramaic for "Tares") in Greek Matthew 13:25?

(I can list many more, but these should be sufficient for now.)

So what do you think Akhi? Should we apply the same logic to these verses and claim that because they contain Aramaic loan-words in the Greek - then these books must have been originally written in Aramaic?

Akhi Ivan, all languages contain loan-words in them. Even the English that I am typing to you right now.

If I tell you that my wife and I went out to dinner last night and enjoyed some wonderful Hors D'oeuvres - does that mean that I wrote this reply to you in French? <!-- sSmile --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="Smile" title="Smile" /><!-- sSmile -->

Take care Akhi!
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
[Image: sig.jpg]
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#3
Taken from <!-- l --><a class="postlink-local" href="http://www.peshitta.org/forum/viewtopic.php?t=457">viewtopic.php?t=457</a><!-- l --> by gbausc

Quote:Add to this that the Greek contains hundreds of transliterated Aramaic words throughout The N.T. , with or without translation (mostly without) ??? Messias, Kephas, Corban, Raca, Satanas, Simon Bar Iwna, Boanerges, Golgotha, Rabboni, Rabbi, Abba, Maranatha, eunglion (Hebrew and Aramaic compound meaning ???powerful scroll???,eun + glion), gehenna, Pharisha, and many more- and there
is little doubt that it is the Greek that is the translation and the Aramaic that is the original behind it.

Maybe we should message him about it! Shameful having an unanswered question in our own community <!-- sHuh --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/huh.gif" alt="Huh" title="Huh" /><!-- sHuh -->
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#4
Thank You, Rob. You completely and very good answered the question.
I received the notification by email.
It is always good to have good community.
Ivan.
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