10-22-2003, 06:30 PM
October 22, 2003
In the Peshitta interlinear NT in John 5:2 it says [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0dsx-tyb ty0rb9[/font] which is translated "in Hebrew Beth-Khisda". My Greek interlinear says "Hebrew" here means "Aramaic", but that is apparently wrong. The various variations for Beth-Khisda include Beth-zatha, Bethsaida, and Bethesda (a city in Maryland).
Can someone explain what is going on linguistically?
Thanks....
Otto
In the Peshitta interlinear NT in John 5:2 it says [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]0dsx-tyb ty0rb9[/font] which is translated "in Hebrew Beth-Khisda". My Greek interlinear says "Hebrew" here means "Aramaic", but that is apparently wrong. The various variations for Beth-Khisda include Beth-zatha, Bethsaida, and Bethesda (a city in Maryland).
Can someone explain what is going on linguistically?
Thanks....
Otto