03-04-2015, 06:42 PM
This is a different post, so please only reply to the point in this one. I want to test your knowledge. You seem very knowledgeable if your posts are any indication.
Here is my question (don't Google this, you won't find the answer ... and it would be intellectually dishonest - not that you would do that, just saying)
Why did the -n- prefix to the 3rd-person Imperfect verb evolve from the original Aramaic -y- (specifically, within the "Syriac" milieu) ???
Please, your own thought.
+Shamasha
PS - it's ok to say "I don't know." I'll explain it to you, and I think you'll be quite surprised.
Here is my question (don't Google this, you won't find the answer ... and it would be intellectually dishonest - not that you would do that, just saying)
Why did the -n- prefix to the 3rd-person Imperfect verb evolve from the original Aramaic -y- (specifically, within the "Syriac" milieu) ???
Please, your own thought.
+Shamasha
PS - it's ok to say "I don't know." I'll explain it to you, and I think you'll be quite surprised.