12-28-2014, 06:21 AM
Dear Charles,
Thank you so much for your in-depth reply, and you may have some great points there; however, I believe that I may have done a poor job of phrasing my question. Please let me try it again:
Why are these three passages (below) being used as Aramaic Primacy proofs (polysemy) when they all come from Western Five (Greek) books? And if anybody would like to see the full explanation given for each one, I will be glad to send it to you. But wouldn't such arguments nullify or at least rob the power of arguing Aramaic primacy from polysemous words?
1) Revelation 6:15 - Those who are STRONG or who have POWER?
2) Revelation 2:20 - SUFFER or TOLERATE
3) Revelation 2:20 - BED or COFFIN
Thank you so much for your in-depth reply, and you may have some great points there; however, I believe that I may have done a poor job of phrasing my question. Please let me try it again:
Why are these three passages (below) being used as Aramaic Primacy proofs (polysemy) when they all come from Western Five (Greek) books? And if anybody would like to see the full explanation given for each one, I will be glad to send it to you. But wouldn't such arguments nullify or at least rob the power of arguing Aramaic primacy from polysemous words?
1) Revelation 6:15 - Those who are STRONG or who have POWER?
2) Revelation 2:20 - SUFFER or TOLERATE
3) Revelation 2:20 - BED or COFFIN