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A problem for Aramaic Primacy? Matthew 28:18
James E Snapp, Jr. said:

"The phrase, "As the Father has sent Me, so send I you" (in Matt 28:18) is (also) in John 20:21. Off the top of my head, I am not aware of any Greek MSS that have this in the text of Mt 28.

Why this is a problem that needs an answer if one can be given...and has the potential of proving that the Diatessaron of Tatian was not a translation of the Greek text.

1: The phrase seems to be in no known Greek or Latin NT text for Matthew 28:18. So, if the Greek Matthew comes from the Aramaic Matthew, and the phrase is original to the Aramaic Matthew's text, then how is it that this passage never got into the Greek, text, or at least never was passed down through the copies, across the board. I wonder now, if the other ancient translations of the GNT might have the phrase in them, or is it ONLY found in the Peshitta, and the Diatessaron.

2: The phrase is found in the Diatessaron as least in the Arabic translation of the Aramaic DT. I raised the point that, if the Aramaic DT, has it, and it was (as thought by GPs) that it was translated from the Greek Gospels, why is it present? James said all the DT. witnesses would have to be checked...which he hadn't, if some might know if this phrase exists outside of the ANT and the Arabic DT, then please speak up.

3: How can this be proven not to be an interpolation from John 20:21, where an almost exact wording of the phrase is found in the Aramaic text? Did Jesus say it exactly the same way on both occasions, and if so, do we see this type of thing being done by Him in other places, if this is not an interpolation. But, interpolation from what source? James Snapp, says it came in from the text of the Diatessaron, but with out any proof. Could it be so? And if not, why not? It has me wondering.

This is a very interesting comment! Thanks.

Does this suggest that Matthew's Gospel was written in Hebrew and then translated into Aramaic and Greek? - The Peshitta interpolating the phrase into Matthew from John's Gospel? - The interpolation would provide the complete and true sense of our Lord's words - the 'true sense' as opposed to a literal translation being a characteristic of the Aramaic versions, as I understand, but not of the Greek versions, which tend to be more literal?

With respect to matters of primacy, I am still in the process of considering the evidence.
The Greek Codex Koridethi (9th c.) has the phrase just as in John 20:21 except for the word Apostelo = sent, which is pempo in John. NA27 says there are also "other" (unspecified) manuscripts that have the reading, a website i found lists Koridethi and "1604, Syr. Pesh. (hiant Syr. S. and C.), Arm. (hiat. Orig.Mt.)". i cannot find any information on 1604 other than "4th century". Of course the Armenian text is interesting as well.

Definition of Apostelo:
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Definition of pempo:
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Codex Koridethi variants (search for Mt.xxviii.18.):
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Matthew is the Gospel that most likely was written in Aramaic, seeing as many early Church Fathers witness to this. The fact that the phrase is found "only" in the Aramaic does not tell us which one is the original and which is the translation. It seems that whoever translated what, it was a singular effort. It may very well be a missing line, the length of the phrase makes that possible. To me that seems at least as likely as an added line.

Yes, it is pretty common for Jesus to "repeat" His words. But i can't think of any good demonstrative examples, so maybe someone else can. The only one coming to mind would be Matthew 22:41-46, which is Jesus speaking to the pharisees privately. He asked almost the same question to the people in the Temple in Mark 12:35-37 + Luke 20:41-44 (the difference being that in Mk and Lk he is asking why Messiah is called "Lord" (Ps. 110:1), whereas in Mt. He is asking why He is called LORD (Ps. 110:5)).
Thank you for your help!

No problem! Unfortunately, i have to correct myself. 1604 is from the 13th century, i had a chance to check in a CNTTS.

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