An important distinction in the Aramaic text

[Burning one]

Eph. 6:1 [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Jrmb Jwkyhb0l w9mt40 0ynb[/font]
Eph. 6:1 [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0ynb[/font] = children of God cause word ending is YA?

Shlama akhi,


not at all. this is a simple grammatical inflection to show plurality. yudh-alaph as it appears in syntatic terms never means "Yah" except for when it is included in Semitic theophoric proper names. i recall someone trying to teach that the Yudh-Alaph ending on proper place names meant "Yah" some years back, and it was a laughable assertion, so don't think that for a moment. it is a grammatical feature only, except when you are dealing with Semitic names, and ONLY THEN, should it be understood as "YAH."


Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy