05-01-2013, 08:38 PM
The Greek has a Semitic syntax.
Now, I've seen your change of mind. No problem with that, but if you think the Aramaic primaicsts make big claims, why not for instance proof how semitic syntax came into the Greek NT?
Take for instance Jude 1:23. 'hate the cloth'.
This makes no sense at all. But in Jewish Aramaic even in Hebrew, it also could be translated as 'ignore the cloth'.
Again: There is NO scientific proof, and I cannot find any quote from a churchfater who said that Jude was penned in Aramaic.
But I also have not seen proof, that Jews wrote Greek using Aramaic syntax, right from the start.
Now, I've seen your change of mind. No problem with that, but if you think the Aramaic primaicsts make big claims, why not for instance proof how semitic syntax came into the Greek NT?
Take for instance Jude 1:23. 'hate the cloth'.
This makes no sense at all. But in Jewish Aramaic even in Hebrew, it also could be translated as 'ignore the cloth'.
Again: There is NO scientific proof, and I cannot find any quote from a churchfater who said that Jude was penned in Aramaic.
But I also have not seen proof, that Jews wrote Greek using Aramaic syntax, right from the start.