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Does Syriac have this "corruption" like the Galilean?
#4
I'm obviously not in expert in Hebrew and Aramaic, but based on what I've read, Yehoshua was less common by the time our Lord arrived on the scene in the flesh. Joshua is referred to as "Yeshua" in the Nehemiah 8:17. Here is how we arrived at the English "Jesus":

Hoshea (Hebrew)- Hoe-shay-ah
Yehoshua (Hebrew)- Yay-hoe-shoo-wah
Yeshua (Hebrew/Aramaic)- Yay-shoo-wah
Iesous (Greek)- Ee-yay-soos
Iesvs (Latin)- Yay-zoos
Jesus (English)- Jee-zus

Jews have traditionally pronounced the name of Jesus as either "Yeshu" or "Yeshua". "Yeshu" is a Hebrew acronym "Y'mach Sh'mo Zichro(no)" (which means "May His name be blotted out forever"), a Rabbinical slander name. "Yeshua" is probably the closest we can get to the pronunciation of the name by which our Savior was called in the 1st century. The problem is that the final letter "Ayin" is virtually unpronounceable to the most people. Yehoshua is possible though, considering that the Galileans used this form quite a bit (according to Wikipedia <!-- s:eh: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/eh.gif" alt=":eh:" title="Eh" /><!-- s:eh: --> ). I'd say that the Peshitta is some of the best proof we have that the name of the Messiah in His own language was pronounced "Yeshua".
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Re: Does Syriac have this "corruption" like the Galilean? - by ScorpioSniper2 - 02-18-2013, 04:04 AM

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