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"first day of the week" in support of Aramaic primacy?
I'm researching the phrase in the NT "first day of the week."
I had concluded the Greek most logically translated "day one belonging to the Sabbaths" and was in reference to day one counting toward 50 and belonging to the 7 Sabbaths counting to Passover. Contributing to my conclusion was that in every instance this phrase occurs it is sandwiched between Passover and Pentecost with talk about "firstfruits."

I began researching to see if linguistically this was true in the Peshitta text as well. I discovered that the marks indicating plurality were added later, in the 6th century.
A light bulb went on in my head!

[b]IF the Greek was translated from the Aramaic, the above might explain why some Greek manuscripts have "Sabbaths" and others "Sabbath" while the majority of texts have "Sabbaths." Translators looking at the context and seeing the context as counting to Pentecost would render it "day one belonging to (7) Sabbaths" where translators seeing the context as the day after the weekly Sabbath would render it "day one belonging to the Sabbath," ie, the first day of the week.

Can anyone refute or support this?

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