07-22-2012, 11:40 PM
Shalom!
Amid my biblical readings, I came across the text of Hebrews 1. In verse 6, Paul seems, in his explanation, the same structure with the 1st Testament passages. But the fact is that until now we did not find what he says in verse 6, in some part of the 1st Testament. Where is that Paul was ruled for what he claims in this verse. Does anyone have an idea or proof that this verse exists in the 1st Testament?
I confess that I was looking in the Bible of Jerusalem, and in Deuteronomy 32:43 there seems to give support to verse 6 of Hebrews 1. But when I look in the Masoretic texts, this text inesistia. And now?
Tanx
Yochanan Ben Efraym
Amid my biblical readings, I came across the text of Hebrews 1. In verse 6, Paul seems, in his explanation, the same structure with the 1st Testament passages. But the fact is that until now we did not find what he says in verse 6, in some part of the 1st Testament. Where is that Paul was ruled for what he claims in this verse. Does anyone have an idea or proof that this verse exists in the 1st Testament?
I confess that I was looking in the Bible of Jerusalem, and in Deuteronomy 32:43 there seems to give support to verse 6 of Hebrews 1. But when I look in the Masoretic texts, this text inesistia. And now?
Tanx
Yochanan Ben Efraym