The "Isaiah the prophet" from Mark's account

[Stephen Silver]

Ok, why [then] does Peshitta have "Isaiah the prophet"?

The clause that follows that does not seem to come from Isaiah... (well our Isaiahs such as MSS, LXX, VUL, TNKH, etc.)
It seems like rather a Malachi reading is there, why does the Peshitta say Isaiah?! <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/huh.gif" alt="" title="Huh" /><!-- s -->

(2) I interpreted that you meant that Peshitta is the 'mother' of the Critical Text, instead of being a translation that shares the same [possible] proto-source with the Critical Text?

Shlama Akhi:
There really is no discrepancy here, only the order in which the saying of Isaiah is placed. Perhaps because of the chronological order of the prophet Isaiah, the passage from Isaiah 40:3 is mentioned first in position to Malachi 3:1 who was the last prophet. This includes in fact all of the prophets. All of the prophets are important and in some way contribute to the foretelling of the birth and ministry of the Messiah, the Living WORD of Alaha. Hence Mark 1:2-3 says Isaiah the prophet in some versions as does the Peshitta. It's easier for me to follow the Peshitta as the "source text", from which all Greek texts are derived by interpretation and recopying. The Peshitta resolves many discrepancies where the multitude of Greek manuscripts create impossibilities, paradoxes and eventually doubts in the authority of the Greek New Testament, making the Gospel less effective and leading to denominalationalism and the divisions within the Body of Meshikha.

Shlama,
Stephen Silver