Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
John 19:17 he bearing his cross?
#1
Can someone who?s able to read Aramaic comment on this?

John 19:17

http://www.dukhrana.com/peshitta/analyze...elo+Edessa

Is this saying
'he bearing is cross?'
OR
is this saying:
'His cross being beared...?'
Reply
#2
(KaD Sh:QiYL Z:QIYTongueheH)
"as-of was-taken-up his-cross" to-the-place...

The passive-participle (Sh:QiYL) is a bit tricky. My take is that it implies a past completed action in passive voice, as in "was-taken-up". More so than "perfect" which implies "he-took-up".

(KaD) is also tricky. It is most often translated as "when", but I suspect that "as-of" is closer to the core of its meaning.
Reply
#3
Jerry,

Thank you very much.

Your reply confirms my suspect that most translations translate it contradictionally with the other gospels.
Reply
#4
You are welcome. I might add though that the Greek of John 19:17 seems to render it a bit different. Not that I have any particular knowledge of Greek, but the ISA interlinear I use shows it something to the effect of:

(kai bastazown eauto ton stauron...)
"And bearing to-himself the cross..."

So if someone is translating from the Greek, it would be understandable for them to carry forward the aspect of Yeshua carrying the cross "himself". Whereas Matthew, Mark, and Luke give the impression that Yeshua did not carry the cross, but that it was carried by Simon.

Interesting, as I had never really looked at the issue before. The Peshitta appears to make no direct reference to Yeshua carrying the cross, whereas the Greek seems to do so only in John 19:17.
Reply


Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)