03-06-2010, 11:16 PM
Shlama Achai,
I came across a distinction in Greek which doesn't appear in Aramaic:
The Aramaic vowel pointing for [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yl+y0[/font] is the same for both instances.
Does anyone have a guess as to how variation of Attalia come about? Surely the [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Y[/font] (yod) in [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yl+y0[/font] does not allow for the variant.
I came across a distinction in Greek which doesn't appear in Aramaic:
- [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yl+y0[/font] (Italiya), appearing in Acts 14:25,26, becomes Attaleia (Attalaya)
- [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yl+y0[/font] (Italiya), appearing in Acts 18:2, 27:1,6; Heb 13:24, becomes Italia (Italiya)
The Aramaic vowel pointing for [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yl+y0[/font] is the same for both instances.
Does anyone have a guess as to how variation of Attalia come about? Surely the [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]Y[/font] (yod) in [font="Estrangelo (V1.1)"]0yl+y0[/font] does not allow for the variant.