02-02-2010, 04:29 AM
Shlama,
call me the king of trivialities, but my curiosity can't be staved, so here's my question to anyone who can explain this:
i noticed this little nuance concering the Peshitta's pronunciation of Macedonia only when carrying the Beth proclitic:
phonetically -- (B)MAQEDWANEEYA [edit: i've only ran into this pronunciation in 1st Thessalonians 1:7-8]
otherwise, phonetically it reads -- MADEQAWNEEYA
it is spelled the same, obviously, but the vowelmarks are slightly off. i checked the online version at dukhrana, the AENT, the free Peshitto at Torahwellsprings, and the "Little Red Book," and all but the latter "Eastern" pointing show the difference. i know the points were added, so is this an error in pointing, or a nuance i'm just not aware of, or am i stressing too much pronunciation on a vowel placement?
thanks in advance!
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
call me the king of trivialities, but my curiosity can't be staved, so here's my question to anyone who can explain this:
i noticed this little nuance concering the Peshitta's pronunciation of Macedonia only when carrying the Beth proclitic:
phonetically -- (B)MAQEDWANEEYA [edit: i've only ran into this pronunciation in 1st Thessalonians 1:7-8]
otherwise, phonetically it reads -- MADEQAWNEEYA
it is spelled the same, obviously, but the vowelmarks are slightly off. i checked the online version at dukhrana, the AENT, the free Peshitto at Torahwellsprings, and the "Little Red Book," and all but the latter "Eastern" pointing show the difference. i know the points were added, so is this an error in pointing, or a nuance i'm just not aware of, or am i stressing too much pronunciation on a vowel placement?
thanks in advance!
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy