Irenaeus and Peshitta?

[Stephen Silver]

Hello my friend

It's the Greeks who called Aramaic 'Syriac' and in the West, Syriac is mistaken as the 'Syrian' language, however, Syriac is just Aramaic and the Syrian language was not just limited to Syria <!-- s --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s -->

The confusion is because of the difference in terms: Mesapotamia (Greek; between the rivers) the Aramaic term was 'Aram Nahrayn'

However, the language, historically, was spread between Egypt and Babylon. So, after all, it's origin might have been 'between rivers' but finally, it was spread out to China and Inda.

Shlama AkhiDistazo:
A small correction. Beyt Naharain is the equivalent of Mesopotamia (Place between the rivers: the rivers being the Euphrates and the Tigris). The word "beyt" can mean "house, home, establishment or a designated abode. As an example, Abraham was an Aramayan from Ur in Beyt Naharain and this means that he spoke Aramaic as his mother tongue.

Shlama,
Stephen