08-16-2009, 04:12 PM
Shlama,
i ran across the following variant in 1st Timothy:
4:10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe. KJV
4:10 For to this end we labor and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of them that believe. ASV
the KJV contains for the underlined phrase: oneidizometha "shame/ reproach"
the ASV contains for the underlined word: agonizometha "contend/ strive"
although the two terms end with the same latter half pronunciation, the definitions are sufficiently dissimilar to ponder why the variant exists.
the Peshitta contains the term meaning "reproach," w'methkhasdeen, and appears as such:
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Nydsxtmw[/font]
here's how the Greek term "contend/ strive" would read in Aramaic if inflected the same:
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Nyrxtmw[/font]
what we have is basically the same letters, with an entirely possible [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]d[/font] / [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]r[/font] confusion, and the dropping of the [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]s[/font].
what think y'all? is this sufficient explanation for the Greek variant?
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
i ran across the following variant in 1st Timothy:
4:10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe. KJV
4:10 For to this end we labor and strive, because we have our hope set on the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of them that believe. ASV
the KJV contains for the underlined phrase: oneidizometha "shame/ reproach"
the ASV contains for the underlined word: agonizometha "contend/ strive"
although the two terms end with the same latter half pronunciation, the definitions are sufficiently dissimilar to ponder why the variant exists.
the Peshitta contains the term meaning "reproach," w'methkhasdeen, and appears as such:
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Nydsxtmw[/font]
here's how the Greek term "contend/ strive" would read in Aramaic if inflected the same:
[font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]Nyrxtmw[/font]
what we have is basically the same letters, with an entirely possible [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]d[/font] / [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]r[/font] confusion, and the dropping of the [font=Estrangelo (V1.1)]s[/font].
what think y'all? is this sufficient explanation for the Greek variant?
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy