02-02-2009, 06:52 AM
Shlama Akhi Otto,
I've got a question for you on a related note.
In the Greek version of Acts 5:1 and 5:3, we find the name "Ananias" in the Nominative (5:1) and Vocative (5:3 while being directly addressed), as one would expect in the case of proper Greek grammar.
Why does the Peshitta contain the Emphatic in both verses for his name?
I've got a question for you on a related note.
In the Greek version of Acts 5:1 and 5:3, we find the name "Ananias" in the Nominative (5:1) and Vocative (5:3 while being directly addressed), as one would expect in the case of proper Greek grammar.
Why does the Peshitta contain the Emphatic in both verses for his name?
+Shamasha Paul bar-Shimun de'Beth-Younan
![[Image: sig.jpg]](http://www.peshitta.org/images/sig.jpg)