Vulgate OT and Septuagint Uses the word Syriac

[abudar2000]

shlom lkhun,

Here's an interesting quote from the Book of the Prophet Daniel (2:4):

Vulgate OT
responderuntque Chaldei regi syriace rex in sempiternum vive dic somnium servis tuis et interpretationem eius indicabimus
And the Chaldeans answered the king in Syriac: O king, live for ever: tell to thy servants thy dream, and we will declare the interpretation thereof.

From KJV:
Then spake the Chaldeans to the king in Syriack, O king, live for ever: tell thy servants the dream, and we will shew the interpretation.

Septuagint/LXX (translated between the 3rd and the 1st BC):
?????? ???????????????? ???? ???????????????? ???????? ?????? ?????????????? ?????????????? ?????????? ?????????????? ?????? ?????????? ???????? ???????????????????? ???? ???????????????? ?????? ???????? ?????????? ?????? ?????? ?????????? ?????? ???????????????? ?????? ?????????????????? ??????????

From JPS:
Then spoke the Chaldeans to the king in Aramaic: 'O king, live for ever! tell thy servants the dream, and we will declare the interpretation.

The Peshitta OT also says "Aramaic"

This shows a Syriac influence on the translators of the Greek OT. (We all know that Syriac and Aramaic are the same thing, but for them to use it is interesting.)

push bashlomo,
keefa-morun

[Paul Younan]

Somehow "Aram" got turned into "Syria" in the Greek language, therefore "Aramaic" = "Syriac".

[abudar2000]

shlom lokh oH Paul,

Somehow "Aram" got turned into "Syria" in the Greek language, therefore "Aramaic" = "Syriac".

I know this story very well; as it was passed down to us (I'll be skipping important details, in order to keep this concise):
-The Assyrians took over the area of what we call now Syria, Lebanon, Israel, etc...
-The Assyrians got defeated by the Babylonians and Medes, and eventually the Greeks took over area of "Syria, Lebanon, Israel, etc..." (even though there's around a 300 years difference, the Greeks were still referencing it with what they knew)
-The Assyrians were called => Athuraya
-The Greeks called them => Asuriy
-But the Greeks didn't rule the entire area, and what we call Iraq today wasn't ruled by them. (after the period between Alexander the Great and the Seleucid dynasty)
-The Greeks wanted to distinguish between those in their domain and those that aren't (i.e. dropping the A)
Assyrian => Asuriy
Syrian => Suriy
-Incidentally that wasn't the time that we started using the word suryoyo (Syrian), instead of oromoyo (Aramean) to describe the language
-Naming the area Suriya was done by foreigners, and not by the locals (the locals continued to refer to their respective countries with the traditional names, despite foreigners)
-The use of the name Syriac instead of Aramaic for the language, came during the msheeHoyo period:
a) Those who were msheeHoyo were referred to as suryoyo
b) Those who were non-msheeHoyo were referred to as oromoyo
-From that point on suryoyo becamse synonymous with Christian Aramaic Speaker (some people would eventually use the term suryoyo-oromoyo for the language)

It is interesting that the Greek OT would use Syriac instead of Aramaic, as it was written by Jewish translators, and prior to when the local people started using that terminology.
(i.e. Assuming that my recount of this story is accurate, and that I didn't mess up any of the details -- as I am going by memory. There are books written on this, so if I ever get my hands on them I'll verify this further.)
Or maybe it is not interesting at all, if these Jewish translators of the Greek OT lived in foreign lands, and knew that the Greek conquered area would be more use to the new naming reference.

push bashlomo,
keefa-morun