08-29-2008, 01:57 PM
Hi, Mike!
When I first was introduced to the Peshitta (thank you, Raphael!), I had a lot to sort out.
"Peshitta" and "Peshitto" are not synonyms. Unfortunately, they sometimes are used as such. The most-obvious difference between the two is that the Peshitto includes the so-called "Western Five" while the Peshitta does not.
"Peshitta Primacy" and "Aramaic Primacy" are not synonymous. Peshitta Primacy asserts that the 22 books contained in the Peshitta are the "originals." Aramaic Primacy asserts that the "originals" (of whatever) are Aramaic (Peshitta, Peshitto, perhaps something else). I point this out because the topic of this thread refers to "Aramaic Primacy" but then it discusses "Peshitta Primacy" and Revelation. We need to be sure that we're discussing the same thing, and I think that's why there seems to be a communication issue here. Revelation really has no bearing on Peshitta Primacy. It would matter a lot to Peshitto Primacy...
Also, if the "Western Five" writings themselves are not "originals" but are translations from "the Greek," that does not necessarily mean that "the Greek" was not translated originally from some other Aramaic source. That would be Aramaic Primacy (apart from the Peshitta and the Peshitto). I wouldn't find it hard to believe that there was an Aramaic "original" behind Revelation; and if there was, then I wouldn't be surprised to find "split words" or other evidence.
Anyway, I hope this might help to clarify things. If anyone thinks I need clarification here, please let me know.
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-Doug "Whitey" Jackson
When I first was introduced to the Peshitta (thank you, Raphael!), I had a lot to sort out.
"Peshitta" and "Peshitto" are not synonyms. Unfortunately, they sometimes are used as such. The most-obvious difference between the two is that the Peshitto includes the so-called "Western Five" while the Peshitta does not.
"Peshitta Primacy" and "Aramaic Primacy" are not synonymous. Peshitta Primacy asserts that the 22 books contained in the Peshitta are the "originals." Aramaic Primacy asserts that the "originals" (of whatever) are Aramaic (Peshitta, Peshitto, perhaps something else). I point this out because the topic of this thread refers to "Aramaic Primacy" but then it discusses "Peshitta Primacy" and Revelation. We need to be sure that we're discussing the same thing, and I think that's why there seems to be a communication issue here. Revelation really has no bearing on Peshitta Primacy. It would matter a lot to Peshitto Primacy...
Also, if the "Western Five" writings themselves are not "originals" but are translations from "the Greek," that does not necessarily mean that "the Greek" was not translated originally from some other Aramaic source. That would be Aramaic Primacy (apart from the Peshitta and the Peshitto). I wouldn't find it hard to believe that there was an Aramaic "original" behind Revelation; and if there was, then I wouldn't be surprised to find "split words" or other evidence.
Anyway, I hope this might help to clarify things. If anyone thinks I need clarification here, please let me know.
<!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> -Doug "Whitey" Jackson