08-20-2008, 07:35 PM
Paul,
I thank-you for replying. Yes, after I posted my messege I did go back to the web-site I mentioned and read the full article. You are right. It may very well have been written by a Greek familiar with the dialect of that Macedonian province. We don't know. I just find it too "coincidental" that he would only include this title in this narrative in Acts 17. I will have to think on it more. To me, if this was definitely an Aramaic Primacy support, text why didn't Luke, writing in Aramaic, just transliterate the Greek word in Aramaic?? That would leave no questions.
Tks for the Acts 2:24 reference. I will go look at that and please do not feel shy in giving me any other "rock solid," "no doubt about it," Aramaic Primacy texts in Luke-Acts and don't feel rushed.
Sincerely,
Mike Karoules
I thank-you for replying. Yes, after I posted my messege I did go back to the web-site I mentioned and read the full article. You are right. It may very well have been written by a Greek familiar with the dialect of that Macedonian province. We don't know. I just find it too "coincidental" that he would only include this title in this narrative in Acts 17. I will have to think on it more. To me, if this was definitely an Aramaic Primacy support, text why didn't Luke, writing in Aramaic, just transliterate the Greek word in Aramaic?? That would leave no questions.
Tks for the Acts 2:24 reference. I will go look at that and please do not feel shy in giving me any other "rock solid," "no doubt about it," Aramaic Primacy texts in Luke-Acts and don't feel rushed.
Sincerely,
Mike Karoules