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Facts about the "Hebrew Primacy" movement
#1
Shlama,

These are some points that I have observed concerning the so-called "Hebrew primacy" movement. After reading a few threads on here and elsewhere concerning this issue, I wanted to share my personal observations, for whatever they're worth.

There are basically two different groups within the "Hebrew primacy" movement and each have their own goals or agendas (possibly three such groups).

The phrase "Hebrew primacy" is fairly a new one, originating mostly among Messianic Jews (a group consisting of both Jews and Gentiles who profess faith in "Jesus"/Yeshua as being the Messiah). The Hebrew Primacy movement generally tend to believe that the New Covenant Scriptures (New Testament) was originally written in Hebrew. Others within the Hebrew primacy movement state that portions of the New Covenant Scriptures were written in Hebrew, but not all of the Gospels and other books. The latter usually say that the Gospel of Matthew was originally written in Hebrew and possibly the Book of Hebrews. Opinions differ depending on the particular group.

There are some Greek primacists who contend that the Hebrew primacy movement was started by Aramaic primacists to eventually lead their adherents to the Aramaic text (i.e., the Peshitta).

On the other hand, there are some Aramaic Primacists (those who state that the New Covenant was originally written in Aramaic - however, opinions also differ on this issue between various Aramaic primacists) usually contend that the Hebrew primacy movement was started by "Greek primacists" (those who say the New Testament was originally written in Greek and not Hebrew or Aramaic). This latter opinion is certainly not out of order as we will see.

Paul Younan contends that those who adhere to the Hebrew primacy camp "are trying to convert Jews to Christianity". While this is true with some individuals within the Hebrew primacy movement, it is not so with all of them. There are amateurs and then there are scholars and then there are those "middle of the road scholars" or simply honest researchers looking for an answer. The latter typically have no agenda except to find the "root language". There are some within the Hebrew primacy movement that would object to "trying to convert Jews to Christianity". I classify the amateurs as those whom Paul said, "are more than happy with a basically KJV-bible with some Hebrew names sprinkled here and there". I also refer to those as "Jewish wannabes".

Many adherents of the proselytizing Hebrew primacy movement come from new religions (those religions that were formed outside the first and second century - Protestants, etc.) In fact, there is a movement within evangelical Baptist movements in the United States and Great Britain that publish bilingual Hebrew-English New Testaments and distribute freely among Jews, with the stipulation that the individual is in fact Jewish. Some of these are beautifully bound with gold gilted pages, gold lettering on the front, back and spine, and often times carry Jewish motifs such as the Star of David, Twelve Tribes of Israel, Ten Commandments and a menorah. The Hebrew text of the Scriptures is usually that of Franz Deltizch or Salkinson and Ginsburg. Both of these versions were translated from the Greek and not from an "original" Hebrew or Aramaic source text. In fact, the Delitzch version has been revised several times in order to come more in line with the "standard" Greek texts and King James Version. If it did not, these groups would never be distributing them. The English text of these bilingual New Testaments contain the King James Version (of course).

A group known as "Hope of Israel Publications" publishes such a volume. I was given a copy by a Jewish friend in Spain and I have to say that it is beautiful (at least the cover is). It would certainly be appealing to most Jews who love books of just about any sort.

These are published by the Trinitarian Bible Society in Great Britain and distributed freely among Jews - mostly by Baptists. (I'm not picking on Baptists). The inside cover of my personal copy of the above mentioned bilingual New Testament states, "This Hebrew/English New Testament has been funded by Independent Baptists." There is an agenda. The inside also says that these Independent Baptists have always loved and supported the Nation of Israel. Yes, by shoving their offshoot of Greek Christianity down the throats of Jews, and lovingly informing them that if they do not convert (i.e., become Protestants) they will go straight to hell.

Anyway, enough of that already. My point is, there are certainly those groups in which Paul mentioned who are attempting to convert Jewish people. That's one group of "Hebrew primacists", while there are others with different agendas - or no agenda at all. However, it would not be fair to say that all "Hebrew primacists" fall into the same category.

The Greek Primacy movement, which is responsible (in part) for spawning the Hebrew Primacy movement, has yet to produce an original Hebrew manuscript of the New Covenant Scriptures (they really would choke if they were able to do that). Even those who adhere to Hebrew primacy without being a part of the Greek primacy movement, are hard pressed to produce an original Hebrew mss as proof that the New Covenant Scriptures were originally written in Hebrew and not Aramaic.

There are some among the Aramaic Primacy movement, such as Paul Younan, who contend that Hebrew and Aramaic are the same, while there are other Aramaic primacists who contend that the two languages are different from each other on various levels. I'm not going to go into detail on that topic since it goes beyond the purpose of my post.

A fair and logical (reasonable, honest, balanced) approach to both sides of the Aramaic and Hebrew primacist theories should be undertaken. Neither group should be leveling false allegations towards each other. The evidence is more than ample and the losing group should not act like sore losers. However, when one group has an agenda (i.e., attempting to convert people to their brand of Christianity) there is nothing in the "game" which could be considered as being "fair and logical".

I asked several people yesterday evening if they were aware of "Hebrew primacy" in regards to the New Covenant Scriptures. The majority of people I asked had never heard of such a movement and thought it was utterly ridiculous.

In regards to the majority of "Hebrew primacists", I have to agree with Paul Younan that they are there simply to take away attention from the original Scriptures and to try to make others turn a blind eye toward the major errors in the Greek text.

Again, these are just my personal observations, for whatever they are worth.
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#2
I am a critical Hebrew and Aramaic primacist, as are many of my friends. I would like to set the record straight.
If you are a Messianic/Notzri, I would like to warn you about Lashon HaRa'a, Yaaqub. Please do not make false accusations against us.
I was a Peshitta primacist at one point. I have seen, though, too many reasons that some of the books were written in Hebrew. I do not believe that any of them were written in Greek, but do think that a number were written in Aramaic.
Some of us are simply trying to follow the evidence. I would not object to an Aramaic original. I simply think that the evidence tends toward some of them being written in Hebrew.
I am also not out to convert "Jews" to "Christianity." I am not a Christian, for one thing. I am a member of an ancient sect of Judaism. I have spent much more time trying to convert Christians to Judaism than I have trying to convince other Jews that R. Yehoshu'a is the Mashiakh.
I think the fact that we get slandered by the Aramaic Primacists saying that we're a GP movement, and by the GPs saying that we're an AP movment is proof that we're neither. We're just weird.
I am not a Protestant. We are not Protestants. I've written a paper tracing our heritage from the book of Acts through the fourth century. I'm considering writing another tracing our heritage from the fifth through the ninteenth centuries.

Are you now going to suggest that the Peshitta Primacy movment has produced one of the original autographs? An original manuscript? This is no proof at all. Ironically, the Greek Primacy movement has more ancient manuscripts than you Peshitta primacists. Does that mean that they're correct? Heaven forbid! Peshitta primacy has a much better argument than Greek primacy, both historically and linguistically. Let's not let the texts get in our way.
Now, there have been found Hebrew mss of Matthew and Hebrews. See the Dutillet and the Munster texts. (please, no one bring up Shem Tov. I'll laugh my head off. And I can't do that right now because I'm just getting over a caugh. So please, have pity on me and don't mention that text. It's comical.)

Shalom,
Dawid
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#3
Shlama Dawid,

I think you misunderstood the intention of my post. I'll elaborate when I have the time to come back to the forum though.
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#4
Shlama Dawid,

I am on the side of Aramaic Primacy, I assure you. I have seen no complete or convincing evidence to prove to me that the "Hebrew primacists" are correct in their theory. I also said that not all Hebrew primacists were trying to convert Jews. Read the thread again to see what I said exactly.

I made no false accusations against anyone. I laid out some points of observations I have noticed from various sides of the different camps. And I never said anything about the Aramaic Peshitta primacy movement producing original autographs.
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#5
Shlama friends,

My post will be short. Before The Jerusalem School of Synoptic Research existed, there was NO "Hebrew Primacy" movement.

Their conclusions are based on faulty theories and research.

The (Jewish) Messiah, Yeshua, is the best friend that the Jewish people have ever had!

I DON'T like the word "convert", but I can surely understand a Jewish person being 'Completed' by his or her Belief in Messiah.

And for THAT, I say Praise MarYah!

Peace, Albion


P.S. The Jerusalem School of Synoptic Research is based on translating THE GREEK TEXT OF THE NEW TESTAMENT 'BACKWARDS' to compose a kind of readable Hebrew.

There's NOT ONE "Hebrew" version of the New Testament or any New Testament book, that is older than the Middle Ages.

I've heard all of this from James Trimm ad neasuem before......same old, same old. <!-- s:nervous: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/nervous.gif" alt=":nervous:" title="Nervous" /><!-- s:nervous: -->
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#6
Unfortunately, many scholars outside of the Synoptic school have come to this conclusion on their own.
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#7
Albion Wrote:There's NOT ONE "Hebrew" version of the New Testament or any New Testament book, that is older than the Middle Ages.

I've heard all of this from James Trimm ad neasuem before......same old, same old. <!-- s:nervous: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/nervous.gif" alt=":nervous:" title="Nervous" /><!-- s:nervous: -->

Yeah, that's kinda' what I'm saying. This new movement (Hebrew primacy) has yet to produce any hard evidence or a Hebrew manuscript to prove their theories. I think many of them have an agenda other than simply really trying to prove anything other than convert others and divert attention from the Aramaic.

I also really don't like the word "convert" except in the case where a person converts from their Jewish heritage and give it up completely. This is what some of these groups want Jews to do. In this latter case, they are less Jews than they ever were. The missionizing group tells them, once they have their claws in their neck, that they can no longer be Jewish and that "Jesus" has nothing to do with "Judaism". <!-- sConfusedhocked: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/shocked.gif" alt="Confusedhocked:" title="Shocked" /><!-- sConfusedhocked: --> <!-- sConfusedtern: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/stern.gif" alt="Confusedtern:" title="Stern" /><!-- sConfusedtern: -->
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#8
Akhi Yaaqub,
There are Midaeval mss. True, we have none older than that. However, many Greek Primacists capitalize on the fact that there are no Peshitta mss older than the fourth century. Three hundred years is a long time, nu?
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#9
Dawid Wrote:Akhi Yaaqub,
There are Midaeval mss. True, we have none older than that. However, many Greek Primacists capitalize on the fact that there are no Peshitta mss older than the fourth century. Three hundred years is a long time, nu?

There are no Greek mss older than the fourth century, either. Complete manuscripts, or even a complete book. Only fragments.

We don't let our manuscripts get to the fragmentation stage. When they start falling apart and get beyond repair, we copy them and burn them with dignity. Blame our Jewish heritage.

Before the discovery of the DSS, the oldest Hebrew OT was from around 1000AD - why? Why no manuscripts from before then?
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#10
Paul Younan Wrote:
Dawid Wrote:Akhi Yaaqub,
There are Midaeval mss. True, we have none older than that. However, many Greek Primacists capitalize on the fact that there are no Peshitta mss older than the fourth century. Three hundred years is a long time, nu?

There are no Greek mss older than the fourth century, either. Complete manuscripts, or even a complete book. Only fragments.

We don't let our manuscripts get to the fragmentation stage. When they start falling apart and get beyond repair, we copy them and burn them with dignity. Blame our Jewish heritage.

Before the discovery of the DSS, the oldest Hebrew OT was from around 1000AD - why? Why no manuscripts from before then?
Ironically, Mr. Younan, I already knew all of this (yes, I have read Lamsa's "New Testament Origin") and I am not disagreeing with this idea. I am simply pointing out that the age of the mss doesn't necessarily mean anything in the case of Jewish-origin manuscripts.
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#11
Ok, I am certainly no expert on this contravercial subject but here's my opinion anyway:

There is simply not enough evidence (both external & internal) to conclude that the NT was originally written in Hebrew. I'm not closed to the possibility that the original NT did contain some Hebrew (perhaps some Torah terminology) but it's highly unlikely that it would've been more than a Hebrw word here and there. The reason being is that by the 1st century Hebrew was not as widely understood as Aramaic, both by Jewish and non-Jewish synagogue attendents.

When the synagogue "elders" (Rabbis) read the Scriptures to the people during Shabbat services, they were read in Aramaic. Aramaic was the liturgical language of the synagogues, this also supports the Peshitta refering to "gentiles" as "Aramaeans" instead of "Greeks" as the GNT says. It is highly unlikely that "Greeks" were present in the synagogues during the 1st century because they did not understand the liturgical language (Aramaic), and numerous "Church Fathers" and historical accounts make clear that the vast majority of Greeks and Romans were anti-Semitic. This is further support for Aramaic primacy, bottom line is "Aramaeans" should be understood as Aramaic-speaking gentiles (some of which were from the 10 northern tribes of Israel).

The Apostles wrote to synagogue "elders" for the purpose of their writings to be read publically to the synagogue attendents (like the Torah Parsha & Haftarah readings) therefore Aramaic was the only suitable language for them to write in.

As for the Hebrew mss (DuTillet, Munster, etc.). I'm aware that manuscriptural age is not the only important thing, but these Hebrew mss lack a transmission record, they just pop up out of nowhere in the Middle Ages, the history of the Peshitta is more detailed. Also they tend be more closely related to the Greek texts than to the Aramaic texts, there is no conclusive evidence that they are original.

Shem Tov Matthew on the other hand is another matter. Although I'm glad that you reject it Dawid, the fact that some Messianics/Nazarenes make use of it is very disturbing. Shem Tov reflects Ebionite and Mandaic beliefs and seems to be a transmission of one or both of these heretical groups which are neither Christian, Jewish nor Nazarene/Messianic. Although I can't prove it, I have a suspicion that Shem Tov is a decedant of The Ebionite Gospel of Matthew, which seems to be the "Injeel" that Muhammad based his anti-Christ teachings on. Islamic tradition also records that Muhammad's first wife Khadijah was an Ebionite, and that her cousin Waraqqa was an Ebionite priest, who was a great influence on him.

I can see your point about saying "don't make me laugh by bringing up Shem Tov" but for me Shem Tov is not a laughing matter. I think it's time that the Shem Tov-Islamic-Ebionite/Mandaic connection be investigated before this heretical & dangerous mss gains too much influence in the Body of Meshikha.
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#12
Christa, would you mind explaining the Bar Kochba letters to me, and how they came to be written in Hebrew?
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#13
Dawid Wrote:Christa, would you mind explaining the Bar Kochba letters to me, and how they came to be written in Hebrew?

I read something similar in James Trimm's intro to his Hebraic Roots Version. Here's the quote:

Confirmation of Josephus's claims has been found by Archaeologists. The Bar Kokhba coins are one example. These coins were struck by Jews during the Bar Kokhba revolt (c. 132 C.E.). All of these coins bear only Hebrew inscriptions (23). Countless other inscriptions found at excavations of the Temple Mount, Masada and various Jewish tombs, have revealed first century Hebrew inscriptions. Even more profound evidence that Hebrew was a living language during the first century may be found in ancient Documents from about that time, which have been discovered in Israel. These include the Dead Sea Scrolls, and the Bar Kokhba letters.

23. Understanding the Difficult Words of Jesus; David Bivin and Roy Blizzard Jr.; 1984; pp. 55-68


Honestly, I haven't researched this in detail and admittedly I haven't found any similar quotes as of yet. And I haven't had time to research Trimm's sources to verify his claims. I haven't heard good things about James Trimm, so beware of this guy's writings.

I'm not sure how widely spoken Hebrew was in 1st century Israel, best you ask Younan, Bauscher & Roth if you wanna debate this further. But even if Hebrew was the national language of 1st century Israel, that doesn't make it the most suitable language for the writing of the NT. The Apostle's mostly wrote to Jews in the Diaspora - Rome, Greece, Asia Minor, and in the case of the "catholic epistles" those areas plus the eastern diaspora (Armenia, Persia, Mesopotamia, Egypt, Arabia, etc.), "to the twelve tribes of Israel, scattered among the gentiles". The OT makes clear that most of the "scattered Israelites" were scattered in the east not the west. Although the Israelites of the Diaspora spoke many languages as recorded in Acts during Pentecost ("Parthians, Cretans, Arabs, Armenians, etc.") Aramaic was the dominant language of the Diaspora, and consequently the most suitable language in which to write the NT. There is no evidence that Hebrew was the language of the Diaspora during the 1st century. Also whether Hebrew was the national language of 1st century Israel or not, everyone here agrees that they spoke Aramaic. For the purpose of restoration and unification of the nation Israel under the Messiah, the good news of the Messiah had to be written in a language that all the Israelites could understand - and for the vast majority that was Aramaic, not Hebrew and not Greek.
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#14
Hey Akhi Dawid,

Dawid Wrote:Christa, would you mind explaining the Bar Kochba letters to me, and how they came to be written in Hebrew?

How come Rabbi Akiva renamed him from his original name, Shimon ben-Kosba, to "bar-Kochba" (Aramaic for "Son of a Star") ?

I mean, why not the nice Hebrew name "Ben-Kochba?"

Wouldn't it be reasonable to assume that if he had been named "ibn-Kochba" or "bin-Kochba", we might have reason to suspect that someone spoke Arabic primarily? <!-- s:biggrin: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/biggrin.gif" alt=":biggrin:" title="Big Grin" /><!-- s:biggrin: -->
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#15
Dawid,

Also, the letters were mostly in Aramaic (9 in Aramaic, 4 in Hebrew, 2 in Greek):

From Yigael Yadin, Jerusalem:

http://links.jstor.org/sici?sici=0006-08...nlargePage
(from The Biblical Archaeologist, Vol. 24, No. 3 (Sep., 1961), pp. 86-95)

Don't believe anything from the Trimm movement.
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