12-17-2007, 02:23 PM
I think it is a huge mistake to say that Aramaic was used exclusively in the first century, and that Hebrew was not the common language anymore, that most people didn't speak it. Go through the Gospels and see how many waw-consecutives you find. That is not a Syriac form. It may have bled over into Judean Aramaic, but it is not Syriac, or proper Aramaic of any sort. See also the Siloam inscriptions, the testimony of the Mishnah, the DSS, and the Apocrypha.
There can't really be any question that Yeshua spoke Biblical Hebrew quite often. The grammatical forms he used were too often foreign to proper Aramaic. I have a monograph by a brilliant scholar, Dr. Lewis Tyler, who points out some of these forms. I'll see if I can find it and post some examples.
Shalom,
David
There can't really be any question that Yeshua spoke Biblical Hebrew quite often. The grammatical forms he used were too often foreign to proper Aramaic. I have a monograph by a brilliant scholar, Dr. Lewis Tyler, who points out some of these forms. I'll see if I can find it and post some examples.
Shalom,
David