Matthew 28:19

[Dave]

Here is the scripture I was using Dave:

1 Corinthians 1:13:"Is Christ divided? Was Paul crucified for you? Or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?"

John 14:26 But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you. (See also John 7:39).

Galatians 3:27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.

'there is none other name under heaven given among men whereby we must be saved. '(Acts 4:12).

In Luke 24:46-47, he wrote of Jesus speaking in the third person:"And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in His name among all nations.

It is written:"whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus. .." (Colossians 3:17).

"When they heard this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus. And when Paul laid his hands upon them, the Holy Spirit came upon them"

"For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not with wisdom of words,...." 1 Corinthians 1:17

Here is some statistics I have posted before of ploughmans:

2. The Test of Frequency

Is the phrase "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit" used elsewhere in the scripture? Not once.

Did Jesus use the phrase "in my name" on other occasions? Yes, 17 times to be exact, examples are found in Matt. 18:20; Mark 9:37,39 and 41; Mark 16:17; John 14:14 and 26; John 15:16 and 16:23.

This keeps hanging on but, in all seriousness, whenever you want to start using scripture that you find to correct this or enlighten me in my way of error Dave, by all means have at it, but please use scripture here, not conjecture or theories of "revelation" that tie other things together.