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the title of son of man,
#1
Greek Primacist Joseph Fitzmyer wrote

Aramaic speaking Christians of later periods certanily understood it in that sense; s uiov tou anqrwpou was translated into Syriac and Christian Palestinian Aramaic as bereh de(>)nasa (pesitta, Mark 2:10) or >ebreh degabra (CPA, Luke 6:5) Here we are dealing with a stage of the Aramaic language in which there was no longer a difference of meaning between
Sn rb and 'Sn rb
,and in order to express the determination of the arthrous Greek phrase the prospective pronominal suffix with the following de-phrase was employed.

I'm wondering if anyone here can enlighten this take on the 'son of man' origins through their aramaic knowledge. It appears that Fitzmeyer believes that Mark 2:10 proves the peshitta to be a later aramaic translation of the greek.

Fitzmyer preceeds this quote with the following,

"whether it stems from an aramaic phrase that he himself used, either of himself or of someone else, may be and will continue to be debated, because it is a question to which in the long run only a speculative answer can be given."
Does anyone have more than a speculative answer, i suspect so!! <!-- s:onfire: --><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/onfire.gif" alt=":onfire:" title="On Fire" /><!-- s:onfire: -->
Zion
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Messages In This Thread
the title of son of man, - by zion - 03-24-2005, 04:04 AM
Peshitta Primacy explains the facts - by gbausc - 03-25-2005, 02:34 PM
[No subject] - by zion - 03-25-2005, 03:50 PM

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