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Clarity on the definition of "Hebrew" as in Acts 22:2
I never heard that before in that way. Paul, I know that if my premesis is correct then the HEBREW (of the 1st century [not first century Aramaic] ) would NOT be exactly the same as the old Mosaic Hebrew. There would have been some modifications , no doubt, as is the case for ALL languages over the passage of time. But just for the sake of discussion, it seems to me that there would be a few Hebrews (remember the Apostle Paul said he was a Hebrew of Hebrews) that would retain much of their original language and the New Testament seems to bear that out. No??

Is not John20:16 a good example where Mary, after the resurrection of Messiah, and realizing she is talking with the risen Lord says, "Rabbi" in the HEBREW with all 3 Etheridge, Murdock and Lamsa bearing this out.

The end of John 20:16 John even tells us, yet again, using those similar words of ". . .which in the HEBREW means, 'Teacher.' " The last word there, being "teacher" seems to be the Aramaic translated term but Mary actually used the HEBREW word. (using Etheridge, Murdock and Lamsa). I am just taking a shot at it here.

I have yet to see any posts on this. But I gather, as you say, it has been discussed quite a bit. But it seems to me, just looking at the verses that JOHN wrote in John 20:16, John 5:2, John 19:13 and John 19:17, John is referring to actual HEBREW words, the old Hebrew, that is, the language the Jews spoke BEFORE they were exhiled into Assyria and later to Babylon, and which, some of the remnant Jews - like the national zealots; the Pharisees, the priestly class and a few select other Jews - (those "Hebrew of Hebrews") retained. Am I missing something here? Even at Dukhrana the term for Hebrew defined in ALL of these passages can mean HEBREW or ARAMAIC I was always under thisimpression since I have been studying the Bible and since I have been a christian.



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Re: Clarity on the definition of "Hebrew" as in Acts 22:2 - by Mike Kar - 05-06-2013, 06:29 PM

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