02-06-2013, 02:14 AM
While this video is from a different guy, he seems to be working the same angle as Mr.Minge: assuming that the NT authors' intended meaning of "Hebrew language/dialect/tongue" would be Mishnaic Hebrew.
Right around 31:40 he begins building a claim that the alap appending the semitic words in the GNT are not actually indicative of Aramaic, but are rather a standard transliteration feature from Hebrew into Greek.
I'm remembering a couple of places where despite that theory the phrase is still clearly Aramaic, thanks to posts above ("Maran Atha", for one). However, it would be great to have one of you more learned fellows address this claim thoroughly once you have a moment. An example from Yeshua's own words would be preferable, but I understand if that won't work.
Right around 31:40 he begins building a claim that the alap appending the semitic words in the GNT are not actually indicative of Aramaic, but are rather a standard transliteration feature from Hebrew into Greek.
I'm remembering a couple of places where despite that theory the phrase is still clearly Aramaic, thanks to posts above ("Maran Atha", for one). However, it would be great to have one of you more learned fellows address this claim thoroughly once you have a moment. An example from Yeshua's own words would be preferable, but I understand if that won't work.