03-09-2010, 12:51 AM
Shlama Aaron,
I took a look at this scripture verse and then did a little research on words used to describe the adversary what I found is that Greek ??????????????? (Satanas) is used 36 times in the Greek New Testament. See Matthew 4:10, 12:26, 16:23, Romans 16:20 just to name a few. It is interesting to see the translator use Belial here since this character is viewed as one of seven princes of hell. So what we have here is the Greek taking liberties with a Hebrew term and an Aramaic term as well. <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> . The book Jegar Sahadutha (Heap of Witness) points out that "Ha Satan in the Hebrew Tanakh is translated with the word Diabolos in the LXX every time except in 1 Kings 11:14 where it transliterates Satan as "Satan" and not Satana, twice." So maybe Zorba is just trying to dress up his Greek a little.
Shlama w'Burkate,
Donald
I took a look at this scripture verse and then did a little research on words used to describe the adversary what I found is that Greek ??????????????? (Satanas) is used 36 times in the Greek New Testament. See Matthew 4:10, 12:26, 16:23, Romans 16:20 just to name a few. It is interesting to see the translator use Belial here since this character is viewed as one of seven princes of hell. So what we have here is the Greek taking liberties with a Hebrew term and an Aramaic term as well. <!-- s
--><img src="{SMILIES_PATH}/smile.gif" alt="" title="Smile" /><!-- s --> . The book Jegar Sahadutha (Heap of Witness) points out that "Ha Satan in the Hebrew Tanakh is translated with the word Diabolos in the LXX every time except in 1 Kings 11:14 where it transliterates Satan as "Satan" and not Satana, twice." So maybe Zorba is just trying to dress up his Greek a little.Shlama w'Burkate,
Donald