Thread Rating:
  • 0 Vote(s) - 0 Average
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
counter example
#2
Shlama,

i would strongly disagree that whoever wrote the Diatesseron was the first to employ this.

here's the places i am aware of that use the phrase in the Peshitta NT:

Mark 7:15, 18, 20
Luke 9:25, 11:24
John 10:33
1 Corinthians 2:11, 15:39
Galatians 6:7

how many of those are applied to Messiah? see what i mean? then there is the slight variation of bar-anash to consider which appears often, as well.

but you can go further back, if you want, and really see that the term was used also in the Hebrew/Aramaic T"NK:

most of Daniel, when speaking of "man" uses the term anash, and once it does indeed use Bar-Anash in direct reference to the Messiah, in 7:13. the term anash can be found in many of the other prophetic books, as well.
Psalm 144:3 uses the term Ben-Enosh, which is the direct Hebrew cognate of Bar-Anasha.
the Hebrew cognate Ben-Adam can be found throughout the T"NK in many places, such as:
Numbers 23:19
Job 25:6
Isaiah 51:12

so was it a term used of Messiah? in a few places, yes. but overwhelmingly, the term that was used in both "Testaments" is in reference to men in general.

in reality, therefore, it doesn't weaken the Peshitta argument in any way, shape, or form. rather, in this, the Peshitta exhibits a very common Semitic detail the presence of which actually substantiates it's validity as a source-text, and not a translation.

Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
Reply


Messages In This Thread
counter example - by Kara - 01-19-2010, 08:02 PM
Re: counter example - by Burning one - 01-19-2010, 10:40 PM
Re: counter example - by Kara - 01-19-2010, 11:25 PM
Re: counter example - by Burning one - 01-20-2010, 02:07 AM
Re: counter example - by judge - 01-20-2010, 04:56 AM
Re: counter example - by Paul Younan - 01-20-2010, 08:42 PM
Re: counter example - by Kara - 01-21-2010, 06:34 PM
Re: counter example - by Burning one - 01-21-2010, 09:52 PM

Forum Jump:


Users browsing this thread: 1 Guest(s)