10-30-2008, 03:54 AM
Shlama,
to add to the support for the reading of "their," a proper understanding of the laws of uncleanness would have Yoseph most assuredly being unclean as well, since he appears to have been present at the birth of Yeshua, and so would have touched Miryam almost certainly, thus acquiring the status of "unclean."
and i would point out also: the idea of "unclean" doesn't necessarily mean a sin has taken place. a person becomes unclean upon touching a corpse, or after intercourse, etc. neither of these are inherantly sinful actions, and yet uncleanness is incurred by them.
in light of this, i don't see any issue with the reading being "their."
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy
to add to the support for the reading of "their," a proper understanding of the laws of uncleanness would have Yoseph most assuredly being unclean as well, since he appears to have been present at the birth of Yeshua, and so would have touched Miryam almost certainly, thus acquiring the status of "unclean."
and i would point out also: the idea of "unclean" doesn't necessarily mean a sin has taken place. a person becomes unclean upon touching a corpse, or after intercourse, etc. neither of these are inherantly sinful actions, and yet uncleanness is incurred by them.
in light of this, i don't see any issue with the reading being "their."
Chayim b'Moshiach,
Jeremy