10-10-2008, 05:05 PM
Paul,
Thank you. But the dots (diacritical markings) you would know; yes? For "gift" in Acts 2:38 "mawhab,t,a" (its pretty close but not accurate) you have no "dots" above this word at this place. But taking the same word "gift" with the same lexical number (spelled the same way) in Acts 2:33 you have a dot above the "m" (first letter of the word). You also have the same word with one dot above the "m" in Acts 10:45, and Acts 11:17. Further, you have 2 dots for the same word(same lexical number for "gift") in Hebrews 6:4 and Romans 5:16. Here, there is the one dot placed above the "m" (maw) and another dot placed above the 3rd character of the word.
Are these diacritical markings?? And what is the significanse of these dots( whether none, one or two)??
Would this change the meaning of this word in any way or to any degree??
Thanks again Paul.
Kindly,
Mike
Thank you. But the dots (diacritical markings) you would know; yes? For "gift" in Acts 2:38 "mawhab,t,a" (its pretty close but not accurate) you have no "dots" above this word at this place. But taking the same word "gift" with the same lexical number (spelled the same way) in Acts 2:33 you have a dot above the "m" (first letter of the word). You also have the same word with one dot above the "m" in Acts 10:45, and Acts 11:17. Further, you have 2 dots for the same word(same lexical number for "gift") in Hebrews 6:4 and Romans 5:16. Here, there is the one dot placed above the "m" (maw) and another dot placed above the 3rd character of the word.
Are these diacritical markings?? And what is the significanse of these dots( whether none, one or two)??
Would this change the meaning of this word in any way or to any degree??
Thanks again Paul.
Kindly,
Mike