12-19-2007, 01:55 AM
I think it is safe to say that Hebrew existed well before there were "Hebrews." For instance, we can be certain that Ya'aqov spoke Hebrew, since he named the mountain in Hebrew, and Yitro named it in Aramaic. So by this time it was either fully developed or had at least begun to develope.
The question is, why were they called "Hebrews"? Presumeably, they were named after 'Iver. Why? They were only one of the many descendants of 'Iver. I like to think it is because they spoke the language of 'Iver.
You yourself pointed out that we didn't always use the Ashuri script. You might as well suggest that Hebrew is based on Phonecian since Phonecian used the Paleo Hebrew script. We know from the DSS, various inscriptions, and even the Talmud that we did not always use the Ashuri script.
lol! You have more cultural pride than even the most ardent Zionists!
The question is, why were they called "Hebrews"? Presumeably, they were named after 'Iver. Why? They were only one of the many descendants of 'Iver. I like to think it is because they spoke the language of 'Iver.
You yourself pointed out that we didn't always use the Ashuri script. You might as well suggest that Hebrew is based on Phonecian since Phonecian used the Paleo Hebrew script. We know from the DSS, various inscriptions, and even the Talmud that we did not always use the Ashuri script.
lol! You have more cultural pride than even the most ardent Zionists!