02-26-2005, 07:22 PM
I couldn't say anything about the Aramaic, but there is something going on in your post that begs elaboration. That is, you're transliterating "Yashar" instead of translating it, then drawing an analogy that doesn't quite work. "Yashar" means something like "straight" or in ethical connotation "right" in Hebrew. So, this is really "book of the straight/right" or "the straight/right book" depending on how you translate it. So, this is "Sepher Ha'Yashar" and not "Ha'Sepher ha'Yashar" or "Ha'Sepher Yashar" etc.
So, I would be willing to wager it is the same book in both texts; but you're translating the Aramaic word while at the same time transliterating the Hebrew word. In English, I would have to render that, "The book of the right" or something similar.
What I am saying is that, say, in the LXX at 2 Sam 1:18 this is written as "Bibliou tou Euthous". So, "Yashar" is being translated as "Euthous" (right) because both words mean the same thing. But I'm not going to ask, "Why doesn't this say 'yashar' in the LXX" because 'yashar' is a Hebrew word which corresponds with 'euthos'.
I'm not sure what book is meant by this (maybe a common record scroll or something) but I don't think it is that pseudo-biblical work called "The Book of Jasher".
I haven't read any targum or any commentator of earlier commentating state anything about a "lost book of Jasher" or whatnot (I don't even think that is correct Hebrew, since the definite article is prefixed to 'Yashar'). Usually "the book of the right" is said to be a reference to one of the "books of Moses".
I'm not really knowledgable on the other aspects of your post.
So, I would be willing to wager it is the same book in both texts; but you're translating the Aramaic word while at the same time transliterating the Hebrew word. In English, I would have to render that, "The book of the right" or something similar.
What I am saying is that, say, in the LXX at 2 Sam 1:18 this is written as "Bibliou tou Euthous". So, "Yashar" is being translated as "Euthous" (right) because both words mean the same thing. But I'm not going to ask, "Why doesn't this say 'yashar' in the LXX" because 'yashar' is a Hebrew word which corresponds with 'euthos'.
I'm not sure what book is meant by this (maybe a common record scroll or something) but I don't think it is that pseudo-biblical work called "The Book of Jasher".
I haven't read any targum or any commentator of earlier commentating state anything about a "lost book of Jasher" or whatnot (I don't even think that is correct Hebrew, since the definite article is prefixed to 'Yashar'). Usually "the book of the right" is said to be a reference to one of the "books of Moses".
I'm not really knowledgable on the other aspects of your post.